Take the Beale case; if police paid for anything when she made her false allegations against innocent men, who were subsequently convicted, would they be held to have assisted in paying for a perversion of the course of justice after the man was acquitted and she was found guilty of perjury? Would that not be an extra element, making the assistance even more serious? On principle, even paying for a taxi or coffee for the woman when she was a "victim" could be now seen as paying for her to commit the crime of perjury.